Question

What does the author mean when he writes: “I trouble deaf heaven with my bootless cries”?

A. Heaven Is troubled with peoples cries

B. Heaven is silent

C. The speakers prayer will not be heard

D. The speaker is extremely loud

Answer 1

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

If it were A, the sentence would not include the word deaf

If it were B, the sentence would not include the words i trouble with my bootless cries

If it were D, the sentence would not include the words deaf or bootless cries

Answer 2

C. The speakers prayer will not be heard

What is a bootless Cry in Sonnet 29?

Interestingly, the phrase" bootless cries" appears in Edward III, an anonymous play the many now believe Shakespeare wrote. look upon myself, I would become occupied with the self-reflection. Featured like him. the features (physical beauty) of the some other more attractive man. Sonnet 29 shows the poet at his most insecure or troubled.

Why does the Bard sing at Heaven’s Gate?

But then, on the midst of all these the dark thoughts, just as he is almost starting to hate himself, from chance the Bard thinks of his beloved, or then he is filled with joy or, rather than wanting to cry to heaven he now sings hymns at the heaven’s gate.

Learn more about Sonnet 29 here https://brainly.com/question/2386573

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