Question

What conclusions can be made about the series ∞ 6 cos(πn) n n = 1 and the integral test?

Answer 1

Depending on how the function is set up, i presume that it is a sum (epsilon) function that is being referred to. Depending on if the function is increasing or decreasing on the interval (infinity to 6??), will determine if the function is convergent or not. When 1 is plugged into cos($(\pi n)n$ it is positive and therefor converging.