brebrebrown2626 brebrebrown2626
  • 16-10-2017
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why does a horizontal line have a slope of zero, but a vertical line have an undefined slope?

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Аноним Аноним
  • 23-10-2017
Refer to the diagram shown below.
Define two positions on each line as A (x₁, y₁) and B(x₂, y₂).
Then the slope is
[tex]m= \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}} [/tex]

Horizontal line:
Define A (0, 1) and B (1,1).
The slope is
[tex]m= \frac{1-1}{1-0}=0 [/tex]

Vertical line:
Define A( (1,0) and B(1,1).
The slope is
[tex]m= \frac{1-0}{1-1}= \frac{1}{0} [/tex]  (undefined)

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