AlysonDvz3844 AlysonDvz3844 30-04-2024 Mathematics contestada For [infinity]N₀ ∊ N, let {aₙ}ₙ₌₁be a bounded sequence such thataₙ₊₁≤=aₙ, for all n>N₀. Prove that [infinity]{aₙ}ₙ₌₁ converges to i=inf(R) where R={aₙ : n > N₀, n ∊ N} is a subset of im(aₙ)