Respuesta :

False

Explanation

let's remember some properties of the exponents

[tex]\begin{gathered} a^m=a\cdot a\cdot a\cdot a\ldots m\text{ times} \\ \frac{a^m}{a^n}=a^{m-n} \\ a^m\cdot a^n=a^{m+n} \end{gathered}[/tex]

so

when dividing two variables with the same base, you subtract the exponents

Therefore, the answer is

False

I hope this helps you

Otras preguntas

ACCESS MORE
EDU ACCESS