To answer this question we will use the following formula for binomial probability:
[tex]P(x)={\binom{n}{x}}p^xq^{n-x},[/tex]where x is the number of times for a specific outcome within n trials, p is the probability of success on a single trial, q is the probability of failure on a single trial, and n is the number of trials.
Now, notice that:
[tex]P(x<2)=P(0)+P(1)\text{.}[/tex]Substituing x=0, p=0.08, q=0.92, and n=10 in the formula we get that:
[tex]P(0)={\binom{10}{0}(0.08)^0}(0.92)^{10-0}\text{.}[/tex]Simplifying the above result we get:
[tex]\begin{gathered} P(0)=\frac{10!}{(10-0)!0!}(0.08)^0(0.92)^{10} \\ =0.92^{10}\text{.} \end{gathered}[/tex]Substituting x=1, p=0.08, q=0.92, and n=10 in the formula we get that:
[tex]P(1)={\binom{10}{1}(0.08)^1}(0.92)^{10-1}\text{.}[/tex]Simplifying the above result we get:
[tex]\begin{gathered} P(1)=\frac{10!}{(10-1)!1!}(0.08)^1(0.92)^9 \\ =10\cdot0.08\cdot0.92^9\text{.} \end{gathered}[/tex]Therefore:
[tex]\begin{gathered} P(x<2)=0.92^{10}+0.8\cdot0.92^9 \\ \approx0.8121. \end{gathered}[/tex]Answer:
[tex]0.8121.[/tex]