Mayans had a number that was the zero, and it also worked as a place-holder. Babylonians didn't had a number zero, they had a place-holder that was kind of a zero, but it was not associated to the "nothingness".
Mayan numeric system was vigesimal (it used a base of 20) such that the symbols used are:
Shell = 0
dot = 1.
bar = 5.
So the number 0 has a unique symbol related to it. And they used it as a place-holder.
In the other hand, Babylonian's numbers are in base-60, and they technically don't have a zero. (They understand the idea of "nothingness" but they did not associate it to a number).
So while the Mayans had the number zero and used it as a palce-holder, the Babylonians didn't had a "zero" (Notice that later Babylonian's texts used a symbol as a place-holder, which was kinda of a zero, but they still didn't have the number "zero")
If you want to learn more about Mayan math.
https://brainly.com/question/25657711
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