In a 2006 paper in the Journal of Labor Research, researchers discussed the correlational finding that the more alcohol people drink, the more money they earn (drinkers earn 10-14% more than non-drinkers). The title of the paper is "No Booze? You May Lose: Why Drinkers Earn More Money Than Nondrinkers." implying that drinking more leads to greater income. (note: this is a real correlation! In other words, there was nothing wrong with the way the researchers collected data, and there really is an overall correlation between drinking and income.) . Do you think that this conclusion, ie, that drinking more alcohol will cause a person to earn more income, is a reasonable one given the type of data the researchers have lice. correlational data), and why or why not? • Are there other ways to explain the finding, and if so, what are they

Respuesta :

The conclusion of the research is not reasonable. This is because correlation does not imply causation. Also, other factors may explain the observed correlation such as as income increases, disposable income also increases which leads people to consume more alcohol.

What is correlation?

Correlation is a statistical measure used to measure the linear relationship that exists between two variables.

Types of correlation

1. Positive correlation : it mean that the two variables move in the same direction. If one variable increases, the other variable also increases. For example, as income income increases, a person drinks more.

2. Negative correlation :  it mean that the two variables move in different direction. If one variable increases, the other variable decreases. For example, as income increases, a person drinks less.

3. Zero correlation : there is no relationship between the two variables.

To learn more about correlation, please check:  https://brainly.com/question/10207538

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