Answer:
The answer is 4/9
Step-by-step explanation:
Hi. Here's the work.
First turn everything into an improper fraction.
[tex]1 \frac{1}{2}[/tex] ÷ [tex]4 \frac{1}{2} * 1 \frac{1}{3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex] ÷ [tex]\frac{9}{2} * \frac{4}{3}[/tex]
To divide fractions we multiply by the flipped version of the fraction, or the reciprocal.
[tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex] ÷ [tex]\frac{9}{2} * \frac{4}{3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{2} *\frac{2}{9} *\frac{4}{3}[/tex]
Now we just multiply the fractions!
[tex]\frac{3 * 2 * 4}{2 * 9 * 3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{4}{9}[/tex]
The answer is therefore 4/9. Please mark brainliest if possible and i hope you get a good grade on your homework. ;)