How does an adaptation where the ghost and Hamlet are played by the same actor differ from an adaptation where the ghost and Hamlet are played by two separate actors? By having the same actor play both parts, the existence of the ghost is proven and Hamlet’s madness is confirmed. By having the same actor play both parts, the need for vengeance is emphasized and Hamlet’s lack of madness is confirmed. By having the same actor play both parts, the two characters are separated and Hamlet’s lack of madness is confirmed. By having the same actor play both parts, the two characters become one and Hamletââ���¬â„˘s madness is confirmed.

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William Shakespeare's "Hamlet" is a revenge tragedy where the prince was asked by the ghost of his father to avenge his murder.  Hamlet's father, the ghost, told his story to his son and asked him to take revenge for the unlawful act of killing and also desecrating his bed.

Correct option is D.

"By having the same actor play both parts, the two characters become one and Hamlet's madness is confirmed."

We discover that the ghost never existed in the first place and was just a fiction of Hamlet's imagination when both Hamlet and the ghost are played by the same actor. When there is only one actor, we can tell that everything is in his head and that he is slowly becoming insane as a result of hi father's death.

To know more about Hamlet, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/833412

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