rameshy5022l rameshy5022l
  • 27-11-2021
  • Mathematics
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Solve please
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Solve pleaseMay God bless you class=

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BonelessPi BonelessPi
  • 27-11-2021

Answer:

We will use a Pythagorean identity and alegbra to prove this.

sin^2 + cos^2 = 1, dividing by cos^2 gives

tan^2 + 1 = sec^2.

Now, breaking down the fraction into parts and simplifying gives:

(1-sin^4)/cos^4 = 1/cos^4 - sin^4/cos^4 = sec^4 - tan^4

Now use difference of squares factoring from alegbra.

= (sec^2 + tan^2)*(sec^2 - tan^2)

By rewriting our Pythagorean identity to

sec^2 - tan^2 = 1 and tan^2 = sec^2 - 1,

we can finish the problem.

= (sec^2 + tan^2) * 1 = sec^2 + tan^2

= sec^2 + (sec^2 - 1) = 2*sec^2 - 1.

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