Respuesta :

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The best and most correct answer among the choices provided by the question is FALSE.       
    

Hope my answer would be a great help for you.

Answer:

The answer is False

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The chance that each number can occur is equal to [tex]1[/tex] divided by the total numbers

so

the total numbers is equal to [tex]6[/tex]

the chance is equal to [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

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