Answer:
1) 5%
2) financial
3) $120,001
4) $ 600.05
5) $118,666.67
6) $106.223,05
7) $106.223,05
Explanation:
1) as the implicit rate is known to the company then it should use that one.
2)
PV of the payment and guaranteed residual value:
Present Value of Annuity
[tex]C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\[/tex]
C 14,378
time 8
rate 0.05
[tex]14378 \times \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-8} }{0.05} = PV\\[/tex]
PV $92,928.0731
PRESENT VALUE OF LUMP SUM
[tex]\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV[/tex]
Maturity 40,000.00
time 8.00
rate 0.05
[tex]\frac{40000}{(1 + 0.05)^{8} } = PV[/tex]
PV 27,073.57
Total value: 120,001.647536178
Percentage of fair value: 120,000 / 125,000 = 0.96
The norm states to classify as financing if:
"Ninety percent or more of the fair value of the underlying asset amounts to substantially all the fair value of the underlying asset"
3) the lease liability will be the $120,001 present value of the cash obligations
4) interest expense
lease liability x interest rate
120,001 x 0.05 = 600.05
5) the right-of-use asset will be depreciated using the straight-line method and all information available for the company so we use the 30,000 residual value expected.
(125,000 - 30,000) / 15 = 6,333.33
125,000 - 6,333.33 depreciation expense = 118,666.67
6) we need to solve for the lease liability after the first payment:
120,001 + 600.05 = 120,601.05 - 14,378 = 106,223.05
7) the lease liability will be the amount calculated on #6 106,223.05