Answer:
1/p4
Step-by-step explanation:
Consider p 6 × p − 4
. This is the same as p 6 − 4 = p 2
So now we have ( p 2 ) − 2
This is the same as 1 ( p 2 ) 2
Which is the same as
1 p 2 × 2 = 1 p 4
'~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Further explanation
Consider p 6 × p − 4
This is the same as p × p × p × p × p × p p × p × p × p
Which is the same as p × p × p × p × p × p p × p × p × p
= p 2 × 1 = p 2
→ p 6 − 4
'.....................................................................
Consider ( p 2 ) 2 This is ( p × p ) 2
→ p × p × p × p = p 4
→ p 2 × 2
But we need
( p 2 ) − 2
