Answer:
a) 0.398 = 39.8% probability that the sample contains exactly one defective item.
b) 0.9021 = 90.21% probability that the sample contains at most one defective item.
Step-by-step explanation:
The itens are chosen without replacement, so we use the hypergeometric distribution to solve this question.
Hypergeometric distribution:
The probability of x sucesses is given by the following formula:
[tex]P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}[/tex]
In which:
x is the number of sucesses.
N is the size of the population.
n is the size of the sample.
k is the total number of desired outcomes.
Suppose there are 3 defective items in a lot (collection) of 50 items
This means that [tex]k = 3, N = 50[/tex]
Sample of 10
This means that [tex]n = 10[/tex]
(a) exactly one defective item.
This is P(X = 1). So
[tex]P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 1) = h(1,50,10,3) = \frac{C_{3,1}*C_{47,9}}{C_{50,10}} = 0.398[/tex]
0.398 = 39.8% probability that the sample contains exactly one defective item.
(b) at most one defective item.
This is:
[tex]P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)[/tex]. So
[tex]P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 0) = h(0,50,10,3) = \frac{C_{3,0}*C_{47,10}}{C_{50,10}} = 0.5041[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 1) = h(1,50,10,3) = \frac{C_{3,1}*C_{47,9}}{C_{50,10}} = 0.398[/tex]
[tex]P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.5041 + 0.398 = 0.9021[/tex]
0.9021 = 90.21% probability that the sample contains at most one defective item.