Question

Can two polynomials be subtracted such that the difference is a binomial? If so, give an example. If not, explain.



No. When two polynomials are added from each other, they will always equal a polynomial.



No. When two polynomials are subtracted from each other, they always equal a monomial.



Yes. (3b2−3b)−(b+a+3)



Yes. (3b+3)−(b+a+3)
PLEASE HELP ASAP!!!!!!!1

Answer 1

Answer:

D- Yes. (3b+3)−(b+a+3)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps<3

Answer 2

Here we have a problem of the subtraction of polynomials, is important to know that the subtraction is really straightforward.

The correct option is: Yes. (3b+3)−(b+a+3)

We will see that yes, two polynomials can be subtracted such that the difference is a binomial (a binomial is a polynomial of 2 terms).

Suppose the polynomials:

$p(x) = a*x^2 + b*x + c\\q(x) = b*x$

If we take the difference of these two:

$(a*x^2 + b*x + c) - (b*x) = a*x^2 + c$

So at the end, we have a binomial.

By looking at the options we can see one really similar to ours, it is:

Yes:

$(3b + 3) - (b + a + 3)\\(3b + 3) - b - a - 3\\3b + 3 - b - a - 3 \\3b - b - a\\2b - a$

Which is the last option, and we can see that after the subtraction of polynomials we have a binomial.

If you want to learn more, you can read:

https://brainly.com/question/11536910