Respuesta :
Answer:
a
[tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062[/tex]
b
[tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0[/tex]
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question we are told that
The mean value is [tex]\mu = 50[/tex]
The standard deviation is [tex]\sigma = 1.2[/tex]
Considering question a
The sample size is n = 9
Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as
[tex]\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }[/tex]
=> [tex]\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }[/tex]
=> [tex]\sigma_x = 0.4[/tex]
Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as
[tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )[/tex]
[tex]\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma } = Z (The \ standardized \ value\ of \ \= X )[/tex]
[tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z \ge 2.5 )[/tex]
=> [tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1- P( Z < 2.5 )[/tex]
From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 2.5 is
[tex]P( Z < 2.5 ) = 0.99379[/tex]
=> [tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379[/tex]
=> [tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062[/tex]
Considering question b
The sample size is n = 40
Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as
[tex]\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }[/tex]
=> [tex]\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }[/tex]
=> [tex]\sigma_x = 0.1897[/tex]
Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as
[tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )[/tex]
=> [tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z \ge 5.2715 )[/tex]
=> [tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715 )[/tex]
From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 5.2715 and
=> [tex]P(Z < 5.2715 ) = 1[/tex]
So
[tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1[/tex]
=> [tex]P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0[/tex]
Using the normal distribution and the central limit theorem, we have that there is a:
a) 0.0062 = 0.62% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51.
b) 0% approximate probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51.
In a normal distribution with mean and standard deviation , the z-score of a measure X is given by:
[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]
- It measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean.
- After finding the z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score, which is the percentile of X.
- By the Central Limit Theorem, the sampling distribution of sample means of size n has standard deviation [tex]s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}[/tex].
In this problem:
- Mean of 50, hence [tex]\mu = 50[/tex]
- Standard deviation of 1.2, hence [tex]\sigma = 1.2[/tex]
- Sample of 9, hence [tex]n = 9, s = \frac{1.2}{\sqrt{9}} = 0.4[/tex].
Item a:
The probability is 1 subtracted by the p-value of Z when X = 51, hence:
[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]
By the Central Limit Theorem
[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}[/tex]
[tex]Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.4}[/tex]
[tex]Z = 2.5[/tex]
[tex]Z = 2.5[/tex] has a p-value of 0.9938.
1 - 0.9938 = 0.0062
There is a 0.0062 = 0.62% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51.
Item b:
Even though the distribution is not normal, the sample size is of [tex]n = 40 > 30[/tex], hence the Central Limit Theorem can be applied.
[tex]s = \frac{1.2}{\sqrt{40}} = 0.19[/tex]
[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}[/tex]
[tex]Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.19}[/tex]
[tex]Z = 5.26[/tex]
[tex]Z = 5.26[/tex] has a p-value of 1.
1 - 1 = 0
0% approximate probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51.
A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24663213