joenidelarosa
joenidelarosa
29-09-2020
Mathematics
contestada
Explain why sin (-pi) equals -1 not 1
Respuesta :
Alaiamarie
Alaiamarie
29-09-2020
The inverse sin of 1, ie sin-1 (1) is a very special value for the inverse sine function. Remember that sin-1(x) will give you the angle whose sine is x . Therefore, sin-1 (1) = the angle whose sine is 1.
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 61+ )
Otras preguntas
What is the assistance provided 2 people in distress???????!????
What are the paper bills and coins that a country actually circulates called?
What is r-1-2r less than or equal to -2? I need to show my work also.
which aspect of storytelling stimulates the audience's senses, A. Voice. B. Theme. C. Rhythm. D. Imagery
If you begin with a one digit integer, multiply by 3,added 8 divide by 2 and subtract 6,you will get the integer back
The catholic king of spain who launched the spanish armada in an attempt to punish protestants in england was...
Which river is the longest in the world? A. Nile B. Amazon C. Yellow D. Yangtze I think its a Or b
What is the value of the expression when a = 4 and b = 3? 4a + b – 5 A. 2 B. 14 C. 7 D. 6
What reforms did napoleon introduce during his rise to power?
factor completely 5x^3-20x^2-60x
ACCESS MORE
EDU ACCESS