Respuesta :

Answer:

1st one

Step-by-step explanation:

(4^6)(4^-8)

= (4*4*4*4*4*4)*([tex]\frac{1}{4*4*4*4*4*4*4*4}[/tex])

= 1/4*4

=1/4^2

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{4^{2} }[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the answer because:

1) 4 to the power of 6 times 4 to the power of -8 equals to 1/16

2) [tex]\frac{1}{4^{2} }[/tex] is also equal to 1/16 because 4 squared equals 16, and then the fraction form is 1/16; therefore, the answer is [tex]\frac{1}{4^{2} }[/tex]

Hope this helps!

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