Respuesta :
Answer:
they are equivalent
Step-by-step explanation:
[tex]\frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2} (both \: can \: be \: divide \: by \: 3)[/tex]
[tex] \frac{4}{8} = \frac{1}{2} (both \: can \: be \: divide \: by \: 4)[/tex]
The two (2) fractions are equivalent.
In this exercise, you're required to determine whether or not given fractions are equivalent (equal). In order to do this, we would reduce the fractions to the lowest term.
Given the following fractions;
- Fraction A = [tex]\frac{3}{6}[/tex]
- Fraction B = [tex]\frac{4}{8}[/tex]
For Fraction A, we would divide both the numerator and the denominator by 3 because it's common to both them.
Fraction A = [tex]\frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
Simplifying Fraction B, we have;
Fraction B = [tex]\frac{4}{8} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
Also, for two (2) fractions to be equivalent, their sums must be equal to one (1).
[tex]Fraction \;A + Fraction \;B = 1[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} = 1[/tex]
Therefore, we can deduce from the calculations that the two (2) fractions are equivalent.
Find more information: https://brainly.com/question/14748058