Respuesta :
Answer:
B- they wanted to elect politicians who could help them out of an economic crisis
Explanation:
Just answered it.
The people begin to demand an end to property requirements for voting in 1819 because.
Answer: B. They wanted to elect politicians who could help them out of an economic crisis.
Who could vote in the 18th century?
18th century
Generally, states limited this right to property-owning or tax-paying white males (about 6% of the population). However, some states allowed also Black males to vote, and New Jersey also included unmarried and widowed women, regardless of color.
When did nonlandowners get the right to vote?
The 1828 presidential election was the first in which non-property-holding white males could vote in the vast majority of states. By the end of the 1820s, attitudes and state laws had shifted in favor of universal white male suffrage.
Learn more about the Right to vote at https://brainly.com/question/946526
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