Respuesta :

Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

We simplify the right hand side of the expression to check if its equal to the left hand side of the expression or not.

[tex]\frac{1}{2}(\sin(x+y)+\cos(x-y))[/tex]

Use the formulas:

sin (x+ y) = sinxcosy +cosxsiny

cos (x-y)= cosxcosy +sinxsiny

Thus, the expression will become

[tex]\frac{1}{2}(sinxcosy+cosxsiny+cosxcosy+sinxsiny)[/tex]

We cannot simplify this expression further.

We can see that the expression is not equal to the left hand side of the expression.

Hence, the statement is False.

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