Question

Which of the following statements is true for inverse functions f(x) and g(x)?

Answer 1

Answer:

the anwser is B

Step-by-step explanation:

i choses this anwser because i had the same anwser on my test and my teacher marked it right

Answer 2

If the function g(x) is the inverse function of the function f(x) then (f·g)(x) and (g·f)(x) is equal to x. Then the correct option is B.

What is the inverse function?

Suppose that the given function is

$f:X\rightarrow Y$

Then, if function 'f' is one-to-one and onto function (a needed condition for inverses to exist), then, the inverse of the considered function is

$f^{-1}: Y \rightarrow X$

such that:

$\forall \: x \in X : f(x) \in Y, \exists \: y \in Y : f^{-1}(y) \in X$

(and vice versa).

It simply means, the inverse of 'f' is undo operator, that takes back the effect of 'f'

$(f \cdot g)(x) = (g \cdot f)(x) = x$

More about the inverse function link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/2541698