Question

The function f(x) = ln(x) has a domain of all real numbers greater than zero and a range of all real numbers. The inverse of this function is f–1(x) = ex. Which conclusion can be drawn by comparing the two functions?

Answer 1

Answer: C

The domain of f–1(x) is all real numbers and the range is all real numbers greater than 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer 2

for the inverse, the exponential function:

g(x) = exp(x)

• The domain is R = all real numbers.
• The range is D = {x > 0}

What can we conclude about the two functions?

Let's say that an invertible function f(x) has a domain D and a range R. Then if we define g(x) as the inverse of f(x), we will have that:

R is the domain of g(x), and D is the range of f(x).

In this case:

f(x) = ln(x).

• The domain is D = { x > 0}
• The range is R = all real numbers.

Then for the inverse, the exponential function:

g(x) = exp(x)

• The domain is R = all real numbers.
• The range is D = {x > 0}

If you want to learn more about inverse functions:

https://brainly.com/question/14391067

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