Solution and Explanation:
[tex]x=450 / 1000=0.45[/tex] and [tex]\mathrm{C} / \mathrm{D}=50 / 1000=0.05[/tex]
[tex]\mathrm{m} 1=1+(\mathrm{C} / \mathrm{D}) /[\mathrm{rr}+(\mathrm{ER} / \mathrm{D})+(\mathrm{C} / \mathrm{D})][/tex] [tex]=(1+0.05\} /(0.45+0.05)=2.1[/tex]
[tex]\mathrm{m} 2=1+(\mathrm{C} / \mathrm{D})+(\mathrm{T} / \mathrm{D})+(\mathrm{MMF} / \mathrm{D}) /[\mathrm{rr}+(\mathrm{ER} / \mathrm{D})+(\mathrm{C} / \mathrm{D})][/tex]
[tex]=(\{1+0.05+0.5+0.25\} / 0.45+0.05)=3.6[/tex]
The higher the reserve ratio the lower the money multiplier.