Starting with 10 blue balls, in each of 10 sequential rounds, we remove a random ball and replace it with a new red ball. For example, after the first round we have 9 blue balls and one red ball, after the second round, with probability 9/10 we have 8 blue balls and 2 red balls, and with probability 1/10 we have 9 blue balls and one red ball, etc. What is the probability that the ball we remove at the 11th round is blue?

Respuesta :

Answer:

Suppose the fraction of blue balls at any given state n is [tex]f_{n}[/tex]. At the start of the process we have: [tex]f_{0}[/tex]=1.

Now consider the situation after having drawn n times.

The current fraction of blue balls is [tex]f_{n}[/tex], the number of blue balls is therefore 10[tex]f_{n}[/tex].

We either draw a red ball, with probability 1−[tex]f_{n}[/tex].  and the number of red balls, blue balls stay the same (we swap red for red):

[tex]f_{n+1}[/tex](red)=[tex]f_{n}[/tex]

or we draw a blue ball, with probability [tex]f_{n}[/tex]  and we obtain 10[tex]f_{n}[/tex]−1 blue balls on a total of 10 balls, thus:

[tex]f_{n+1}[/tex](blue) = (10[tex]f_{n}[/tex]− 1)/10

The total probability of (fraction of) blue balls after this n'th draw is therefore:

[tex]f_{n+1}[/tex]=[tex]f_{n+1}[/tex](red)(1−[tex]f_{n}[/tex])+[tex]f_{n+1}[/tex](blue)[tex]f_{n}[/tex]

which can be simplified to:

[tex]f_{n+1}[/tex]=0.9[tex]f_{n}[/tex]

which leads to:

fn=0.9[tex]f_{n}[/tex]

At the end of the 10'th draw the fraction of blue balls is equal to:

[tex]f_{10}[/tex] = [tex]0.9^{10}[/tex] ≈ 0.348678

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