Answer:
Since h(x) is a one-to-one function, this means its inverse is also a function
Step-by-step explanation:
The key idea here is knowing that a function needs to be a 'many - to -one' operation (Many could also include one-to-one functions. The key if that for any x, there is only one f(x) value).
This means that for a function to have an inverse, it needs to be one-to-one. Since the domain and range switch when we look at inverse relations, and so if we have a many-to-one function, then it's inverse would be one-to-many. But we need it to be one-to-one. So the original function would need to be one-to-one.
However the short answer is to just know the 'theorem' which says that a function has an inverse function if and only if it is a one-to-one function.
