ocmartin8802 ocmartin8802
  • 27-01-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada



If m∠1 = m∠2, then m∠1 is:

Respuesta :

dovehorsederp dovehorsederp
  • 27-01-2020

Answer:

equal to m<2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Whatever the angle of m<1 is, it is also the measure of m<2 and vice versa.

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