Respuesta :
Answer:
cash 586,402 debit
discount on BP 33,598 debit
bonds payable 620,000 credit
--to record issuance of bonds--
interest expense 29320.1 debit
discount on BP 1420.1 credit
cash 27900 credit
--to record first interest payment--
Explanation:
procceds 586,402
face value (620,000)
discount on bonds payable (33,598)
We need to solve for the effective market rate, which is done with excel or trial and error, we need to find which discount rate generates the coupon and maturity of the bond equal 586,402 dollars
As this is a discount we know it has to be higher than the bond rate.
We try and solve:
[tex]C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\[/tex]
C 620,000 x 9% / 2 = 27,900.00
time 16 ( 8 years x 2 payment per year)
rate 0.05
[tex]27900 \times \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-16} }{0.05} = PV\\[/tex]
PV $302,373.7707
[tex]\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV[/tex]
Maturity 620,000.00
time 16.00
rate 0.05
[tex]\frac{620000}{(1 + 0.05)^{16} } = PV[/tex]
PV 284,029.14
PV c $302,373.7707
PV m $284,029.1436
Total $586,402.9144
Using goal seek we find out a rate of 5% semiannually will make it.
Now we solve for thefirst interest payment:
we apply the market rate to the carrying value to know the interest expense
586,402 x 5% = 29,320.1
then we subtract the cash proceds to kwno the amortization
29,320.1 - 27,900 = 1,420.1
The carrying value is adjusted:
586,402 + 1,420.1 = 587,822.10
and the process repeat in the next payment.