Answer:
0.0498
Step-by-step explanation:
given,
The time between surface finish problems in a galvanizing process is exponentially distributed with a mean of 42 hours.
[tex]\lambda = \dfrac{1}{42}[/tex]
a) probability that none of the lines experiences a surface finish problem in 42 hours of operation
= [tex]\dfrac{1}{42}\dfrac{1}{42}\dfrac{1}{42} \int_{42}^{\infty} \int_{42}^{\infty} \int_{42}^{\infty} (e^{\dfrac{-x}{42}})\ (e^{\dfrac{-y}{42}})\ (e^{\dfrac{-z}{42}})dx\ dy\ dz [/tex]
= [tex](\dfrac{1}{42})^3\int_{42}^{\infty} \int_{42}^{\infty} \int_{42}^{\infty} (e^{\dfrac{-x}{42}})\ (e^{\dfrac{-y}{42}})\ [\dfrac{e^{\dfrac{-z}{42}}}{\dfrac{-1}{42}}]_{42}^{\infty}dx\ dy\ dz [/tex]
= [tex](\dfrac{1}{42})^2\int_{42}^{\infty} \int_{42}^{\infty} (e^{\dfrac{-x}{42}})\ (e^{\dfrac{-y}{42}})\ e^{-1}dx\ dy [/tex]
= [tex](\dfrac{1}{42})^2\ e^{-1}[\dfrac{e^{\dfrac{-y}{42}}}{\dfrac{-1}{42}}]_{42}^{\infty}[/tex]
= [tex](\dfrac{1}{42}) \ e^{-1}\ e^{-1}[\dfrac{e^{\dfrac{-x}{42}}}{\dfrac{-1}{42}}]_{42}^{\infty} [/tex]
= [tex] e^{-1}\ e^{-1}\ e^{-1} [/tex]
= [tex] e^{-3}[/tex]
= 0.0498