Answer:
a) 0.02739
b) 0.00034
Step-by-step explanation:
If it is believed that at least 6 of the 10 pints are usable, then the 75% of “good” pints that can be used from this sample reduces to 60% of 75% = 0.6*0.75 = 0.45
Now for this sample we use a binomial distribution with probability of “success” (finding a “good” pint) of 0.45% and
the probability of getting exactly r good pints out of 10 is
[tex]\bf \binom{10}{r}0.45^r(1-0.45)^{10-r}=\binom{10}{r}0.45^r0.55^{10-r}[/tex]
where
[tex]\bf \binom{10}{r}[/tex] are combinations of 10 taken r at a time.
a)
The probability that at least 8 of the pints are usable is P(r>7)
[tex]\bf \binom{10}{8}0.45^80.55^2+\binom{10}{9}0.45^90.55^1+\binom{10}{10}0.45^{10}0.55^0=\\0.02289+0.00416+0.00034=0.02739[/tex]
b)
Here we want P(r=10)
[tex]\bf \binom{10}{10}0.45^{10}0.55^0=0.00034[/tex]