Answer:
No, she is not correct because the functions have different domains.
Step-by-step explanation:
Hi there!
No, she is not correct. Let´s find the values of x for which each function is defined. Any value of x that makes the denominator to be zero, will not be included in the domain of the function:
For f(x):
x² - 1 = 0
Add 1 to both sides of the equation:
x² = 1
Apply the square root to both sides of the equation:
√x² = √1
x = 1 and x = -1
For g(x):
x-1 = 0
add 1 to both sides of the equation:
x = 1
Then, g(x) is defined for all real numbers except 1 while f(x) is defined for all real numbers except 1 and -1. The functions have different domains and, therefore, are no the same.
Have a nice day!
