Respuesta :
Answer:
here we can say that acceleration of the satellite is same as the gravitational field due to Earth at that location
Explanation:
As we know that gravitational field is defined as the force experienced by the satellite per unit of mass
so we will have
[tex]E = \frac{F}{m}[/tex]
now in order to find the acceleration of the satellite we know by Newton's II law
[tex]F = ma[/tex]
so we will have
[tex]a = \frac{F}{m}[/tex]
so here we can say that acceleration of the satellite is same as the gravitational field due to Earth at that location
Given that [tex]m <<< M[/tex], then [tex]a_{m}[/tex] is considerably greater than [tex]a_{M}[/tex], which tends to be zero. ([tex]a_{M}\to 0[/tex]).
Let be [tex]m[/tex] and [tex]M[/tex] the masses of the satellite and the Earth, respectively. By the Newton's Law of Gravitation, the accelerations experimented by the satellite and the Earth ([tex]a_{m}[/tex], [tex]a_{M}[/tex]), in meters per square second, are, respectively:
Satellite
[tex]a_{m} = \frac{G\cdot M}{R^{2}}[/tex] (1)
Earth
[tex]a_{M} = \frac{G\cdot m}{R^{2}}[/tex] (2)
Where:
- [tex]G[/tex] - Gravitation constant.
- [tex]R[/tex] - Distance between the centers of the Earth and the satellite.
If we know that [tex]m <<< M[/tex], then [tex]a_{m}[/tex] is considerably greater than [tex]a_{M}[/tex], which tends to be zero. ([tex]a_{M}\to 0[/tex]).
We kindly invite to check this question on Newton's law of gravitation: https://brainly.com/question/24023449