This is false. (Is there any more information? Are you sure there is no typo?)
Let [tex]s=\sin\theta[/tex] and [tex]c=\cos\theta[/tex]. Then
[tex]\dfrac1s-s=m[/tex]
[tex]\dfrac1c-c=n[/tex]
In the first equation,
[tex]\dfrac1s-s=\dfrac{1-s^2}s=\dfrac cs=m[/tex]
In the second,
[tex]\dfrac1c-c=\dfrac{1-c^2}c=\dfrac sc=n[/tex]
So [tex]mn=1[/tex], and
[tex]m^4n^2+n^4m^2=m^2n^2(m^2+n^2)=m^2+n^2[/tex]
so we're left to prove that
[tex]\dfrac{c^2}{s^2}+\dfrac{s^2}{c^2}=1[/tex]
Now
[tex]\dfrac{c^2}{s^2}+\dfrac{s^2}{c^2}=\dfrac{c^4+s^4}{s^2c^2}=\dfrac{c^4-2s^2c^2+s^4+2s^2c^2}{s^2c^2}=\dfrac{(c^2-s^2)^2}{s^2c^2}+2[/tex]
and both [tex](c^2-s^2)^2[/tex] and [tex]s^2c^2[/tex] are non-negative, so
[tex]\dfrac{c^2}{s^2}+\dfrac{s^2}{c^2}=\dfrac{(c^2-s^2)^2}{s^2c^2}+2>2[/tex]
and cannot possibly be equal to 1.