Should the US be able to use the event of the Lusitania as a violation of neutrality rights by German uboats, eventually leading the US to enter the war?
Explanation: The US can not say that they were neutral and say that the Lusitania was a violation of neutrality rights because they had been giving Britain weapons and ammo for their war time efforts so they could not have said that it was a violation due to the fact that the Lusitania itself was carrying supplies.
