Rebbel
Rebbel
03-03-2016
Mathematics
contestada
how is 6/6 equivalent to 1
Respuesta :
Emillis
Emillis
03-03-2016
6 over 6 is equivalent to 1 because when put in fraction form it is a whole, it like a car only having enough room for 6 people and when the car is filled with 6 people it becomes one whole car.
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 16+ )
Otras preguntas
Hey! Question: Simplify (16y^8)^3/4 Thanks for the help!
Mrs. Bull spilled coffee on her computer during the first week of school! The total cost after tax to repair it is represented by 0.08(50h) + 50h , where h repr
Two stores sell the same television for the same original price. Store A advertises that the television is on sale for 30% off the original price. Store B adver
what was the anaconda plan
A gym holds one 60-minute exercise class on Saturdays and several 45-minute classes during the week. Last week all of the classes lasted a total of 285 minutes.
Emma drove 320 miles to her grandmothers house.if she dove the same amount of miles for 8 hours,how many miles did she drive each hour?
Based on the passage, with which of the following statements would Plato agree?
The supermarket displays the unit price for the 15.3-ounce box in terms of cost per ounce, but displays the unit price for the 24-ounce box in terms of cost
Do you think constitution is important
A test tube contains starch and the enzyme amylase. after 30 minutes, the test for starch is negative and the test for sugar for positive. explain?
ACCESS MORE
EDU ACCESS