A 36-year-old male is evaluated for a 3-day history of progressive exertional dyspnea and palpitations. Medical history is significant for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and mild mitral regurgitation (MR). An electrocardiogram (EKG) demonstrates atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response (AFib with RVR). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
a) Initiation of rate-control therapy with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers
b) Immediate electrical cardioversion
c) Referral for catheter ablation of AFib
d) Anticoagulation therapy with warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
