A 64-year-old male is evaluated following coronary angiography. He initially presented several weeks ago for progressive exertional chest pain and shortness of breath. Nuclear stress testing demonstrated a large anterior stress defect and an ejection fraction (EF) of 33%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
a) Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement
b) Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery
c) Medical therapy with aspirin and statin
d) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement
