Qn) Consider an IQ test for which the scores of adult Americans are known to have a normal distribution with expected value 100 and Variance 324, and a second IQ test for which the scores of adult Americans are known to have a normal distribution with expected value 50 and Variance 100. Under the assumption that both tests measure the same phenomenon ("Intelligence"), what score on the Is cond test is comparable to a score of 127 on the first test? I plain your answer
